Posting on behalf of a friend (with permission), sorry for the lengthy backstory.
My friend (+ young DC) moved back in with her parents about 8 years ago following the death of her DH, partly for some emotional support and partly to help look after them in their old age.
Some time just prior to her moving in, her parents (who owned the property 50/50 as Tenants in Common) had set up what she thinks is a 'Life Interest Trust' for their property.
They had some language put into their wills about this arrangement being in lieu of payment to their daughter for time spent living with/caring for them, as they were advised that this would avoid any 'depravation of assets' issues.
Despite living much longer than expected, her mother sadly passed a few years ago. She never went into care, so the issue of care home fees never came up with her.
Her father's health is now deteriorating rapidly and she has started to broach the subject of him going into care.
As she understands it, the value of her father's half of the house (+ his other assets) would be used to calculate his liability for care home fees. She would move out and sell the house so that these fees could be paid from his 'share'.
However, her father is adamant that the house is effectively hers due to the trust and that he is just a 'lifetime resident'. He believes that she cannot be forced to sell the house that she lives in with her child, and that any liability for his care would only be calculated against his other assets.
Who is correct?