Council tax liability if I was living in a rental, but still owned a house

[IWillAlwaysBeinaClubWithYouin1973]

Last summer I left ex-h in the home we owned and moved into a rental flat with adult DD, whilst the house sale went through. Ex-h then claimed single person council tax discount as I wasn't living there, although I still jointly owned the house. I then started paying council tax at usual rate to a new local authority in the area where my rental was.

As I still owned that house during the period it was being sold, should I actually have paid council tax on both the rental and the owned house? If I find out now that I should have paid double, can I just offer the original local authority the amount owing, or will they want to pursue some sort of case against Ex-h instead, for him saying he lived there alone, when I was still on the deeds?

Thoughts welcome!

I don't think you did anything wrong. Council tax is paid by the person who lives in the house rather than the person who owns it (unless the house is empty, in which case the owner pays).

As an example, if a house is rented it is the tenant who is responsible for paying, not the landlord who owns it.

I don't think you've anything to worry about.

Both places were occupied as a normal domestic home and by two households.

There is a hierarchy of liability for Council Tax with occupiers at the top.

AIUI paying double relates to second homes and that's not the case where there are two households and two houses.

No, you have nothing to worry about.

Your ex-h as owner occupier was top of the “hierarchy” so was the bill payer, and as the only adult living there (I’m assuming?!) also entitled to single persons council tax discount.

Your place of residence in the new area was your place of residence and that’s where you owed council tax. You weren’t entitled to single persons discount as your adult DD was also resident there.