The mother of my dad’s wife went into a care home recently, and dad recently mentioned that, following a financial assessment, she’s now going to be given state funding for her fees. I’m a little baffled though because as far as I’m aware, her mother owns a house which her grandson (dad’s wife’s son) is currently living in. Surely she should be made to sell the house?
I’m a little suspicious that the house wasn’t declared on the form however before I speak to my dad about it, I just want to check that I’m not missing anything here and that there could be an honest reason as to why her mother is entitled to state funded care while in possession of a house?
If she is being dodgy, is there any way in which she could be caught or made to pay the fees at a later date? Could my dad get embroiled legally in this if his wife has made a fraudulent claim?
I’m not at all familiar with any of this so help would be appreciated.