I'll keep this as brief as possible.
Separated for 6 years but only got divorce proceedings underway a year ago and currently at the financial agreement stage where everything is bring split 50-50. All amicable and no issues there at all.
Only the husbands name is on the mortgage and the mortgage has only ever been paid for by the husband out of the husbands own bank account.
House has recently been sold STC and searches are complete so completion is expected in a few weeks with any luck (I know things could and do go wrong at this stage but it appears to be a simple house sale). Again, agreement in the divorce is 50-50 split for the sale of the house so the wife will receive half of the sale proceeds.
My question is, as the divorce hasn't been finalised yet, will this affect the completion date of the sale and the monies being transferred to the husband? Presuming it will be transferred to the husband as he is the named person on the mortgage, is the only person who has ever paid the mortgage and is the person who has dealt with the sale, solicitor etc?