This is something that I can’t seem to get my head around, so just wondered if anyone with the right legal knowledge can explain.
It’s not a current situation, it’s recently historical.
A husband goes bankrupt, he lives with his wife and the deeds and mortgage are wife’s name only as are savings. After a lot of questions insolvency service decides the house and savings are not marital assets and the wife keeps them all. The insolvency service takes nothing. Bankruptcy is discharged as usual after a year and life moves on.
The house and mortgage and savings are still in the wifes name only but in divorce they are marital assets. Why is there a distinction? You’d think the husband either has a claim or doesn’t and it shouldn’t be interchangeable? I’d love to understand why as it irritates me. But as I say, no live case.
Insight welcome!
Sorry typo in subject, should be “by” not “my”. I am not the insolvent one.