I’ll try to be succinct. This isn’t me but I direct relative, DSis and her P
DSis and he bought a house together. Now have no mortgage. She owns 80% and he owns 20% this was all drawn up properly and done correctly.
they are now separating. They’ve done a bit on the house, paid for with relatively equal contributions, odd bits here and there over 5 years. General decoration, new downstairs bathroom etc.
the house has been valued and a sale agreed. As per the agreement he will leave with 20% of the sale and her 80%. She has agreed as a goodwill gesture to cover all the agents and legal costs of selling.
he is now arguing as they roughly equally spent on decorating and some improvements, he should get more than 20%.
does he have any basis for this argument?