I am a company shareholder alongside my husband who is the majority shareholder.
I've noticed recently that the company Articles of Association contain a good leaver/bad leaver clause stating that in the event of a divorce I would be deemed a bad leaver and forced to sell my shares at their nominal value of £0.01. However the more recent shareholder agreement mentions nothing of the sort. Am I bound by the Articles of Association or would the last shareholder agreement override the Articles?