I will try and bullet point to make it simple but would welcome any advice regarding the current situation please!.
Relative died last year. I am 90% beneficiary in the will, with 10% going to a third party who is also the executor. Individual not solicitor/company.
Given 12 months grace on mortgage (until Sept 2023). Got the house sorted and saleable. Estate agent instructed comes back to executor to say cannot be marketed as no deeds.
Land registry seems to raise more questions, freehold or leasehold, can't remember which (it's one house that was split into two separate properties before my relative purchased) for both properties is in the neighbours name, who bought the house around 15 years after my relative bought theirs.
House was originally bought 40 years ago. Mortgage was held with one bank who changed hands several times - C&G > TSB > LloydsTSB > TSB before ending up with Lloyds bank (potentially with a remortgage)
Around 2007 there was a boundary dispute with a neighbour. Solicitors instructed but no idea of the outcome. May not have been followed through but was certainly with solicitors for a long time (I was with relative several times when they went in to query about progress).
Current position is that a separate solicitor has been instructed to work out what's gone on with apparently zero movement since May. All places are saying there are no deeds held. This is now being looked into by a paralegal whilst solicitor is on leave.
Lloyd's bank are now saying that the mortgage now needs to be paid and that I am liable for this (as a beneficiary, not an executor) or legal action will be taken. Is this right? Do we have any argument that actually, at some point the bank have caused this problem by giving a mortgage without having any deeds?
It's all a bit of a foreign language to me, I've never bought or sold a house, but will answer any questions as best I can!