My grandad died in nov 2003. Apparently date of probate was sept 2004. He didn't leave a lot of money as care home fees needed paying.
I don't understand why probate happened. Could it be because the Will was contested by one of his children?
Also, I've recently come across papers mentioning shares in his name, they were worth around £5k when he died and are now worth around £10k. The company im trying to obtain the shares through are insisting on going through probate again, because of the previous probate back in 2004, is this correct? I think over 10 years ago I found that my grandad had money left in an investment and I just had to send off a copy of his death certificate. No mention of probate.