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Legal matters

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Divorce...

8 replies

Uhoh90 · 01/03/2023 21:50

Can an ex wife claim for half of my house, if she was never on the deeds/mortgage and I sold it after our divorce was finalised?

OP posts:
prh47bridge · 01/03/2023 22:07

If there has been no financial settlement, she may be able to make a financial claim against you. How much, if anything, she would get depends on a range of factors. If she is talking about making a claim, you need to consult a lawyer.

Uhoh90 · 01/03/2023 22:25

Thank you for your response @prh47bridge - if there's evidence, albeit not legally written up, would this work in my favour?

OP posts:
prh47bridge · 01/03/2023 22:45

What kind of evidence are you talking about?

prh47bridge · 02/03/2023 09:43

If you mean evidence that she was never on the deeds or mortgage, that is irrelevant.

Uhoh90 · 02/03/2023 19:05

Not evidence that she's not on the mortgage, but text messages to confirm she doesn't want any of the proceeds prior to the divorce.

OP posts:
FrippEnos · 02/03/2023 19:24

From what I understand, if you don't have a clean break settlement she can get part of the property settlement, and possibly keep coming back for more money.

prh47bridge · 02/03/2023 19:27

You won't be able to get her claim thrown out on that basis. Her text messages are not legally binding. As I said earlier, you really need to consult a lawyer who will be able to give you some idea of the likely outcome if she goes ahead with a claim.

Collaborate · 03/03/2023 10:13

The text saying she doesn't want anything from the house may perhaps be used in evidence. You need to instruct a solicitor who can advise better.

If there has been undue delay then the text is more likely to carry weight.

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