Researching our property which was originally part of a large local estate.
The initial purchase on land was in 1931 listing the contract being made between 1) The estate 2) the earl who owned the estate 3) two peers who are no relation to the earl or each one is a hereditary peer and the other had his peerage awarded for service in the 1st world war in 1931 he was a sir 4) another man. This is how it is listed I realise 1) and 2) are selling the land. Would 3 and 4 all be purchasing.
A second parcel of land was sold in 1932 the contract is listed as the same individuals on the same order, but the sir has been made a baron by this point.
There is a final parcel of land that was sold in 1982 that lists a company as 1 and an individual who owned the house as 2.
I would be gratefully if any conveyance can give we any insight I would be grateful.