If a person is given / left some money in cash, with an instruction to 'put it towards property', how could they do so?
presumably it's a problem as they cannot prove where the money came from?
would it have to be in a UK bank account for a certain period of time?
even if the person who gave it was able to sign to say that that is what they were doing, do they have to prove where they got it from?
I'm thinking of a scenario where an older person had saved up small amounts of cash at home for many years then gave it to a friend at the end of their life.
All perfectly legal / morally ok, just a very old fashioned approach.
But, would there be all sorts of issues re modern money laundering rules?