In 2011 my dad was diagnosed with a terminal illness and died six months later, aged 70. He was survived by my mum (his wife) and me. This is in England.
I was very surprised to find out he died intestate (which is evidenced on gov.uk). He was always incredibly fastidious when it came to financial and administrative things and I seem to recall him having a will in place at one time. I can’t believe he would have died intestate without reason. Although this all happened quite a long time ago now, it’s something that I still find myself thinking about. I’m wondering if anyone might be able to shed some light on it…
He was financially abusive towards my mum (who didn’t work, not sure if that was her choice or his insistance) and the house was in his sole name, as well as all assets. She had no access to bank accounts, receiving only ‘housekeeping’ from him in cash.
He had a well-paid job and savings and investments, stocks, shares etc in all sorts of places. I’m fairly sure the value of his estate would have exceeded the £250k threshold under intestacy rules.
Just before he died, he signed over the house to my mum under her sole name.
What I don’t understand is what happened to the rest. Did he empty his accounts and transfer all the money to my mum prior to his death? Would this get around intestacy rules? But why go to those lengths when you could just make a will?
I have been largely NC with my mum for the best part of 20 years due to abuse as a child. I don’t begrudge her the money, I would just like to try to understand what happened.