My mum and dad jointly owned their home until my dad died 10 years ago, at which point my mum became sole owner. However, she didn't change the Title Deeds, so my dad is still named on them. Should she have done this?
I'm asking because my mum died recently, and I have a grant of probate to sell the house. I'm filling in the conveyancing forms and wondering if the solicitor will need evidence that a) my dad died (i.e. death certificate) and b) my mum therefore became sole owner of the house (e.g. my Dad's Will).
I emailed the solictor with this question last week but they don't reply quickly, and ideally I want to get all the paperwork ready to send off in one batch tomorrow. It is easy for me to include the death certificate and Will, but am I overthinking it?