15 years ago I bought a house jointly with my parents. They own a 3rd & the other 2/3 is a joint mortgage between me & them.
It was all legally sorted by solicitors.
Just over 10 years ago DP moved in with me, he pays £400 a month usually in cash but sometimes bank transfer towards bills.
He now insists that he has a claim on my share of the house because he's lived here over 10 years.
Is this correct?
He's not contributed to any house improvements or up keep & I've never suggested he's paying anything towards the mortgage.
He's in debt & wants to sell to pay it off, I've no intention of doing this.