My FIL died about 6 years ago, he and his partner owned a house in equal shares. Each had a will allowing the other to reside in their home until death or moving into care.
His partner died in January. Her son is the sole beneficiary of her will, my husband and his sister are trustees of the trust covering FIL’s half of the home, all registered with the Land Registry.
FIL’s partners son is leading on the sale of the home... so DH has had contact with 2 separate solicitors and 2 conveyancers all asking for daft info (including DH’s death certificate). He seems to be a faffer and is always looking for a better deal.
2 sales have been lost.
SIL keeps on about Probate.
So my question is, do we actually need to have probate for FIL’s partner in order to sell the property?
I’m just trying to establish the correct order of process.
Many thanks.