Could anyone advise on whether there is a case to persue here please?
DH purchased a franchise some time ago and written into the contract it stated that he was responsible for 2 counties (except for a few specified postcode areas). All fine and he found that he got the majority of work in county 2 (we live in county 1).
One day an announcement was made on the HQ Facebook page introducing a new rep for county 2 area. DH questioned this with HQ who said as he doesn't live in that area (the counties are next door to each other), they wanted someone who did live there.
Nothing in the contract talks of minimum sales requirements (his sales in county 2 were very good anyway) so we feel frustrated that this has been taken away. The contract was for a 5 year term and he's basically walked away from it all as county 1 just isn't sustainable to live off (not as affluent for the type of product).
Has DH got a case for breach of contract considering both parties signed knowing he would have county 1 & 2?