We sold our house via an agent. Their service offered sales progression until exchange/completion, of which they did nothing. I wrote mid November about my disappointment at their service, no response. They were in contact with my buyer every day apparently, but never contacted me. They closed down for holiday the day prior to exchange, and didn’t tell me. I contacted them via email, which bounced back stating they were closed but to message xxx number. I did this, and in return got an abusive message from the agents boyfriend stating they were unwell and I was overstepping by messaging that number.....the number I’d been told to message. They also replied with information on my sale that I class as confidential, and the boyfriend has no link to the business.
The day of completion came and I had no phone call about key exchange. They had arranged with my buyer to just hand over the key they had for viewings, this resulted in my buyers turning up while we were just finishing up. My buyers are unpleasant and immediately kicked off. They did many things (taking my child’s phone away while they were talking to their dad being one), and throwing the last of my belongings outside being another. This could and should have been avoided if the agent had contacted me to discuss key handover. Because they only had the key for viewings the buyers then tried to make a claim for other keys, saying they hadn’t received any. Again, this could have been avoided had the agent discussed key handover (I left the keys in the property, didn’t hand them over as they were abusive).
It’s now time to pay the estate agent bill, and while I accept the found a buyer, they haven’t fully done their job, which caused immense hassle for me.
I’ve lodged a formal complaint, and intend to take it to the property ombudsman when it fails (as it will because she owns the agents and is investigating herself).
Am I legally bound to pay the full bill? I have offered to discuss, but they refuse. They’ve now contacted my ex as his name was on the house, but they were aware (confidential disclosure from me) that the reason for house sale was acrimonious divorce so they’re using that to go around me for payment.
Do I legally have to pay in full, and then go through the complaints procedure, or am I allowed to pay a (good) proportion of the fee commensurate with their service.
It’s not about the money, I have the money set by to pay. And whatever I legally have to do I will do, but they have less incentive to bother with a complaint if I just hand the whole lot over.
I’ve come out of a financially abusive marriage and I’m not sure if that is clouding my judgement with regard to paying (I’m determined no one else will ever ‘get one over on me’ again).