Hi,
I'd really appreciate some general advice on the following scenario. Apologies if this is overly long. I'm more than happy to seek legal advice and plan to do so, but would welcome any advice or opinions!
I split up with my ex partner in February 2019. We aren't married, no children and the only shared asset we have is our house. The property is jointly owned with no deed of trust. We live in England. Following the split, I moved in with my parents. I have continued to pay half of the mortgage throughout.
The split wasn't amicable and at one point I thought I would have to instigate legal proceedings to force a sale, but he changed his mind. We received an offer on the property in December 2019, however our buyer pulled out days before exchange in March. At that point, we discussed that we would put the house up for sale again once everything settles down.
Yesterday, he got in touch stating he had a change of heart, wanted to remain in the property and arrange a transfer of equity from me to him. Please note, he had not yet approached our mortgage provider to run through affordability checks. He will need a mortgage to continue to stay in the property.
I've been in touch with out mortgage provider today to clarify the remaining mortgage.
We purchased the house for 220k in Nov 2018. When the house was put up for sale in December 2019, we had three valuations on the property which were around the 235 - 240k. The offer we had and accepted was for 228k, but the buyer was a cash buyer. I understand that a valuation now would likely be lower. The mortgage owed on the property is 189k.
My question is that my ex is under the impression that he can remove me from the deeds and mortgage and pay me an amount that he considers reasonable. He gave a figure of around 6k.
I've requested that he gets in touch with our provider to see if the transfer of equity is even possible for affordability reasons, before even discuss the next steps.
My confusion lies in how we calculate what is owed. I was under the impression that he would be buying me out, therefore I would entitled to half of the equity left. Or is it correct that he could negotiate what I receive if this goes ahead?
Thank you so much for your advice.