Hi all. I haven't used this section of Mumsnet before but am hoping someone clever will be able to advise me.....
We bought our house in 2001. It has a small paddock next to it which we thought was part of the property, but it turned out not to be included on the deeds. There is a strip of land behind the garden which the seller said he had a right to use 'in perpetuity' but again there was nothing with the deeds. This all came out at the time of purchase so we knew. We assumed the paddock belonged to the same firm who owned the strip and the adjoining wooded copse - but a search revealed that the paddock does not belong to them, and isn't registered.
An elderly neighbour thinks it may have belonged to the council once, as they think they remember them using it store tarmac and gravel and etc, but certainly not since our seller bought the property in the mid 70s. I saw something online which said if the previous owner was the council we'd need to have been in possession for 30 years - so should I keep that quiet?
Our next door neighbours (other side of the paddock and copse) have also been there forever and I'm sure would swear an affidavit if necessary.
We have always used the paddock as our own - but I want to claim full title now, and thought I could download a form from the land registry - but everything I see on google suggests I need to go via a solicitor/conveyancer. Obviously this isn't the time to do that - does anyone know if I can do some/any of it myself or do I just need to wait and pay a solicitor when things get back to normal?
Thanks for any advice.