Hello, kind MN legal experts. I am looking for some advice, if anyone has a minute to respond. It is a little convoluted, but I will try to be as clear as possible.
I am hoping to have surgery in the new year as a private patient (health insurance). There is a pre-surgical process to go through, which involves several appointments with members of a multidiscplinary team. In documentation provided, I was given a fixed price for what these appointments would cost, separate to the surgery itself (which is covered by insurance). The documentation further stated that a separate appointment with a respiratory specialist might be required.
I began the process in July and had an initial consultation, payment for which was clearly set out as part-payment of the agreed fixed-sum price. Some weeks later, I received a text message from a health practitioner (psychiatrist) indicating that she wished to arrange a telephone conversation with me as part of the assessment process. We arranged a time and the telephone consultation took place, lasting some 40 minutes.
There was no mention at any time of payment, certainly no specific sum mentioned. No invoice was issued; I was not asked for an address. Some weeks later, I received a voice message requesting payment of GB £250 for this consultation. It is even more in my currency as I am not in the UK. I found this distressing and wasn't sure what to do. A week later, I received another voice message requesting payment. I e-mailed the hospital, explaining the situation, and they called me back and apologised, characterising it as "poor communication" on their part.
I failed to clarify with them whether I was, in fact, liable for this charge. I should have done that. Instead, I blocked the number from which the telephone calls were coming demanding money, hoping it would all go away! Today I received a letter to my home address containing an invoice for the £250.
Could anyone tell me where I stand legally? I absolutely hate confrontation, would usually rather lose money than make a fuss, and find the whole thing quite distressing. However, I really think this was sharp practice or, alternatively, remarkable incompetence. As I said, there was no mention of a charge, so I (perhaps stupidly) assumed this consultation was part of the fixed-price pre-assessment process. I feel that I was somewhat taken advantage of, but perhaps I am wrong in this? I am also in very straitened circumstances financially, so this is a major cost for me.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated. My feeling right now is that I might send them a cheque for €120 as a gesture of goodwill on my part. Sadly, though, I think I'm going to have pay the full amount, aren't I?