If a court order says ...
"Respondent mother shall make the children available for indirect
contact only with the applicant father, limited to letters, cards and gifts."
does that mean the father should not be trying to see the children in person?
Its a really long and messy story which I am happy to share if required, but the nutshell is that is the court order and the father wants to see the children (older teenagers) against their wishes and has started attending their events / hobbies and trying to meet them after school.
Father says that as the order doesn't expressly forbid him from seeing them he is entitled to do so even though its upsetting the children.
Mother would obviously like to stop him doing so.
TIA