Proving financial abuse and coercive control?

[BabyDubsEverywhere]

How is this done if the victim hasn't been involved with any 'services'?

I am trying to support a friend of mine who is about to start divorce proceedings and I think she will be entitled to legal aid based on financial abuse and coercive control, but how do we prove it? She has bank statements to show she has no access to her husbands earnings, and never has had, but she's never been to the police etc so we don't have much evidence. Truthfully, she is only just accepting that the relationship has been abusive - he has seriously brain washed her into thinking the way they live is normal and reasonable. He now plans to divorce her and leave her destitute...

I can give more info if it will help, but really need advice on how/what will constitute as evidence in terms of getting her legal aid etc.
TIA

www.moneyadviceservice.org.uk/en/articles/protecting-against-financial-abuse

This pretty much explains it.

Thanks for the link. We're pretty confident in the explanation of finance abuse/coercive control being applicable to the current situation, its more how to prove it that we're questioning. She really only has bank statements and possibly witness statements (though as they would all come from her family/friends and we're not sure whether that would be important enough - no professionals, as I said before). I guess we'll have to go forward with what we have and see where it takes us.