My solicitor has been holding some of my late husband's money in his clients account (don't know how long for), and has just presented his bill for dealing with the estate. He now wishes to deduct the amount owing on the bill from the money he is holding in the clients account.
Is this usual practice? To me this doesn't seem right. Surely he should transferred the money to me and let me decide how I want to pay the bill? I know the bill has to be paid but I may prefer to pay by credit card.
Not sure whether to query this or not.