hi, I am in a unique situation where even conveyancers are not fully sure about what to do!
My ex husband owns family house in his sole name. After divorce, as a part of conesnt order, he is supposed to transfer the house on my name and I need to pick up the remaining mortgage. I have arrnaged for a new mortgage for purchase of the house at leftover mortgage as the house price (refeered as a houes purchase).
Now I checked with my convyancer whether the house transfer to me after paying the mortgage to my ex husband should be shown as a transfer of equity or sa a sale purchase, he is not just very sure. Searching on net has not helped either to resolve the situation.
Please let me know if anyone have had such experience or know of such scenario and whether the house was transferred or a formal sale purchase was carried out.