Friend (let's call her Ann) has a problem.
About 8 years ago she inherited money from an uncle and wanted to buy a house. The uncle's brother lent her a chunk of his inheritance so she coukd pay him back and not need a mortgage.
She has been happily repaying her uncle, and has now paid him back completely.
Apparently, when buying the house (in England), uncle was made a co-owner of the house as solicitor said that was how these things worked, just like a mortgage company owns your house jointly until the mortgage is paid off. This sounds odd - I thought the bank just got first dibs on money if the house was sold and didn't own it, but could force sale if you defaulted?
The problem is that despite everyone agreeing she no longer owes anything, the solicitor says uncle can only be removed from ownership if he proves his identity, and the only acceptable proofs are passport or full driving licence. Uncle is an eccentric sod and has never driven and has never had a passport, and refuses to acquire either. Which means Ann can't sell the house which she wants to do in the next year or so, because legally Uncle Bob owns half of it.
Ann may have misunderstood some of the issues, but if anyone could clarify if it is normal to refuse to accept any alternative forms of ID in this situation, and whether co-ownership even once a loan is repaid is normal, I'd be most grateful. Or if a new solicitor is called for. Many thanks.