Hi there, looking for advice.
Lets say A is man and B is woman.
So before marriage:
A owns multiple flats which are rented out.
B buys house for A and B using a chunk of A's money however, A is not on the mortgage or deeds. The house was bought as a "forever" home intended for them to both live in it as the family home.
They get married
B then indicates they want to divorce.
Does A have a stake in the forever home which B bought before they got married?