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order for sale

7 replies

Ladybird37 · 14/06/2018 12:17

exh and I divorced 6 years ago with no financial arrangement in place, no kids. We agreed later that I would try to get a mortgage to buy him out, but I am now on benefits and have not been able to do this. I have since remarried. He is taking me to court to force the sale of the house, but I think that after this much time I would like to keep it as its my home and he's now in a much better financial position than I am. What are the chances of this being successful?

OP posts:
RedHelenB · 14/06/2018 19:00

I think he may well be successful if there are no children involved a dog you can't take over the mortgage.

Collaborate · 14/06/2018 20:42

He has a 100% chance of success. No doubt about that, unless you were married for 5 minutes and you funded the house purchase on your own, or there's something similarly earth shattering that you've not told us.

Ladybird37 · 15/06/2018 09:16

No, we bought it together and married for 4 years. Is it likely that the court would split any profit 50/50 or might I get more as our circumstances are so different?

OP posts:
Costacoffeeplease · 15/06/2018 09:22

I don’t think your personal circumstances are relevant but IANAL

LivingMyBestLife · 15/06/2018 09:26

Sorry OP, but have you posted about this before? If not, there has been a very similar one, and IIRC the hive mind there thought that the former DH would be successful in getting the house sold. Is your ex DH still paying the mortgage then, or have you/new DH been paying it?

Tinkobell · 15/06/2018 09:31

On the face of it, can't see what rightful claim you would have over this at all. TBH it sounds like your ex has been too patient. His now improved circumstance v your own is not relevant is it?

Ladybird37 · 15/06/2018 09:44

No, not posted before but will look for the post. Dh and I have paid the mortgage since exh left

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