Hi there
I don't have a solicitor so wanted to ask people here if my ex's solicitor is being honest with me...
My ex has proposed buying me out for £30k on the basis that split 50/50, the equity is £35k and he has taken 3k off to account for national costs of sale, and a further 2k to account for the fact that properties rarely sell for the asking price. He says this is standard practice.
This seems silly to me. Why should we account for costs of sale if the house isn't being sold? Surely we just split the equity 50/50?
Thank you!