I'm struggling to understand what the crucial differences are - reduction from 12 to 10 years ? Burden of proof now on " squatter" to show they've occupied and used land ?
I know it's complicated and that there are also transitional arrangements . And that the recommendation is not to persue . But I'd just like to understand a bit .
Please don't advise asking on gardeninglaw site - I'm not thick skinned enough for that lot !