can a company suddenly demand backdated rent?

[frazzleoff]

My husband and I (separated) created a small ltd.company 60:40 in his favour. Our company operates upon and has developed land owned by my husband - he bought before we met under a company created with 99:1 with his sister.

When we met I invested all the cash to start and build our business, his investment contribution was the land. Unfortunately we didn't write down any of this.

Now we are seperated he is demanding that our company pay a rent - backdated to his company.

It is maliciously motivated (he's restricting my access to income and refusing to provide for the kids too.)

But is it legally possible in principle to suddenly demand a rent? When my investment was made under premise this would never happen.

We are not in UK but this country uses British law so I would appreciate any advice from anyone with knowledge of this area.

Thanks for reading!

I'm not a lawyer, but I should think he'd need an agreed contract to demand rent. He might wish to start demanding rent in the future, or possibly demand that you remove buildings/machinery, but I don't think he can ask for it to be backdated.

He sounds like a bit of a nasty one, though. :(

Sounds like something you need to resolve within divorce proceedings. If the company pays rent to your H presumably that's an asset the court can divide between you.