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Lack of consent order in historical divorce

1 reply

bombazine · 22/06/2014 22:39

Regular NCing for obvious reasons.

I have been married a few years. Have not yet, for various reasons, had a joint mortgage. We do have joint accounts and both joint and separate savings. We have an offer on a house but the chain is starting to look wobbly.

Going through ancient paperwork this week, I noticed something odd and the upshot is DH never finalised the financial aspect of his divorce with a consent order.

Divorce was 2000ish. No children. Short marriage. Wife intermittently employed part time. Marital assets in the low six figures, mainly housing equity across two properties (one BTL), split down the middle on divorce. Transfer of equity effected by nothing else signed. (Divorce was entirely DIY on DH's side and he is fairly sure ExW didn't take legal advice either).

I am not happy that she could come back at any time for another claim. How concerned should I be?

OP posts:
Collaborate · 23/06/2014 08:22

If you check the thread started by sallyroute66 it contains the answer you need.

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