She is leaving an abusive marriage and will be moving out of a housing association house (shared) to another social housing property on her own with the children. Her husband will stay in the current home.
He will have no rights to occupy her new home, is this correct? If he remains resident in the old home and she signs the tenancy in the new home singly, the fact that they are married does not confer him residence rights in her new property? She has had this suggested by two housing professionals and is concerned.
Thanks