Hi,
I've posted on this before. My uncle left his (second) wife his estate in trust - his wife is to benefit from the income from it during her lifetime. (His first wife was my aunt, they had no children). The capital then passes to my DB & me. The will also gives provision for the possibility of lending the capital to his wife or for her benefit.
My DB & I have just had a letter out of the blue from a solicitor enclosing a copy of the will and stating that they, as trustees, now intend to lend the entire capital to her for her to invest herself. They say this amount will be repayable from her estate on her death and that they do not legally need to get our consent for this but want to give us 'advance notice'. They enclose a duplicate of the letter they want signed by us and returned to show we are 'agreeable' to this. I'm not sure what exactly I'm agreeing to by signing as my consent isn't needed..... I'm also wondering:
- does this mean the money borrowed from my uncle's estate can be spent or invested however his wife chooses? (we understand she has a new financial adviser, fine if he's ok but what if he's not?...)
- does this mean the trustees aren't going to do anything further, just loan out all the capital to her & in however many years, if there's then anything left in her estate deduct the capital loan when she passes away?
- if his wife goes into a care home at the end of her life and fees are deducted from her estate to pay for this, is the loan of the capital deducted from her estate before of after care home fees are deducted?
I'm assuming that there's no guarantee that her estate will cover the amount of the loan. I hope I don't sound grabby here, I'm very grateful that we were remembered in his will and it's a relief it's finally become a tad clearer. (He passed away 18 months ago) I'm just not sure what the implications of this loan is - me & my DB would like to know for the sake of my DC and DN's.
Many TIA for any answers!