It's a minor sum of money but this has really annoyed me.
I have just sold my leasehold flat. I got in touch with the freeholder to ask for a refund of the ground rent that I've already paid for the couple of months between now and the end of the period when I no longer own it.
I was told they 'don't do refunds' and it was up to me to arrange a rebate from the purchaser since they apparently won't start paying until the beginning of the next period.
I wasn't aware of that and evidently neither was my solicitor. I've fired off an arsey letter demanding that they pay me back but I'm just wondering whether they're legally within their rights to refuse?
I paid rent in advance for a whole period when it turns out I'm only liable for part of it. Surely they can't refuse to pay me back the because I didn't do so in a way that is more convenient for them?!
I was charged from day 1 when I moved in pro-rata, not from the first day of the subsequent billing period. The freehold has changed hands in the meantime, so it wasn't by the same company, but it's obviously not some secret universal practice that everyone knows except me and my solicitor.
Gah! Cross!