Just a quick question.
So, last year me and XH split. We jointly owned two houses in the same area. One was vacant so XH just moved in to that one and we agreed I'd carry on living in the other. After a couple of months I realised that I really needed a new start. Got a new job in a new area and put the house on the market (with XH's consent). We discussed things then and it was decided that we would both pay half of the mortgages on the 2 properties until the divorce was through. I explained that the house would need to sell as I Couldn't afford the mortgage on its own.
Divorce is now sorted a year later. Financial declaration means that he has b