Am hoping someone can help here.
Situation is my Dad is currently going through a divorce with second wife. When he met her, she was going to sell her house as she was on interest only mortgage but could not afford the payments. Things moved quite quickly with them and he moved in, started making the payments and did a lot of home improvements - like about £20k worth. The house remained solely in her name. They married five years later - about 2006 and have 2 children, the youngest is 5 years old. His stbxw met someone else and wanted to split and started divorce proceedings. Before my dad moved out they agreed a split of 65/35% on the house sale after paying mortgage & other debts.
Now the house is being sold because the stbxw wants to sell - I realise she would not HAVE to sell with young children. However she now says she doesn't have to give him any of the proceeds as she owned the house before she met my Dad and it is still in her house.
The sale is due to complete next week, is she correct or would he be entitled to something? He has by his contributions improved the value of the house enormously and is left with absolutely nothing.
I just want to confirm that he is happy for her not to sell for the children to be housed, but she wants to sell.
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Legal matters
Split of house proceeds following divorce - URGENT HELP please if you can!!!
13 replies
curiousparent · 06/10/2012 11:44
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