Ok, he can do this because he has, but it seems wrong to me and I'm having a bit of trouble working out exactly why - hope someone can help.
This is not a discussion about pros and cons of vaccination.
I want DD vaccinated with MMR pre-school booster, but ex doesn't - he cancelled it! (She's had all other vaccinations). Ex has now written to DD's GP (also my GP, not ex's) to this effect and on "union advice" GP is now saying they, as a practice, won't give vaccination until or unless the matter is resolved and agreement reached between those with PR.
Surely it's in DD's best interests to have it done and for GP to support this.
Ex is not going to agree, so I may be forced to apply to the court to get an order for DD to have the jab when I feel (not that it should have to come to court at all) that the default position should be that they will do it.
Anyone any ideas or advice?