Slightly strange question and sorry if this is the wrong forum to ask but I'm trying to get my head around something for work next week. I will ask someone legally trained in RL on the specific point in the actual case but can't do that til next week. In the meantime, I'm realising I'm in danger of spending a long time barking up the wrong tree and if there's a short 'yes' or 'no' answer that a lawyer would be able to tell me instantly I'd be very grateful!
In short, I've found a series of cases that went through to the House of Lords but the bit of relevance to me is in the Court of Appeal judgment that was overturned.
So:
If there is a House of Lords ruling overturning the Court of Appeal decision, does it mean that everything said in the Court of Appeal judgment is invalid? The point in question doen't look to me to be part of the reason the House of Lords overturned the previous judgment and wasn't even really discussed in the House of Lords judgment.
Thanks very much!