In mid-Sept, I submitted a formal request for flexible working to reduce my hours from 35 per week to 30 from 1st Oct so I could be home for the school run. As my manager was on holiday, the senior manager verbally agreed it was all OK (within 7 days.) Unfortunately he moved on to a new job and apparently didn't take any further action.
I got paid end of Oct but didn't check my payslip as I was on holiday for the first 2 weeks of November. When I got back I realised I'd been overpaid and emailed my manager. She told me she'd sort it out and that she would not be asking me to pay back the overpayment as it was clearly the senior manager's error.
At the end of Nov I got paid fulltime hours again so emailed my boss. Again she assured me she'd sort it out and I would hear from HR with a revised contract.
At the end of Dec I was overpaid again. I emailed my boss saying that I was very worried about this as I didn't want to get into difficulty paying the monies back. She told me she was liaising with her contact in HR to work out what I owed and that they'd agree an affordable repayment plan with me, deducting a set amount from my pay each month. She asked me to resend my request form to her.
Last week I sent her another email chasing and, when I got no reply, I called HR. They have no record of my flexible working request nor any manager calling them to discuss the matter. I'm furious that I've been lied to! It was too late to stop payroll and today i have again been overpaid.
I understand that contractually (and morally) I ought to pay all the monies back. But is there not a valid argument that there has been an implied acceptance of the amounts being paid? I fail to see why it is my responsibility to now have to agree a repayment plan when I have been making my manager aware since mid Nov that my salary has not been correctly adjusted. At what point do the company have to shoulder some of the fault for this situation?
I'd be keen to here what any employment lawyers think...