Ok MN lawyers, here is a question for you and it may be a very simple 'yes' or 'no', I guess.
In order to obtain favourable tax treatment for a property in one of the EU countries dh and I need to sign an agreement that if he buys an asset (a property) under his sole name I will not lay a claim to it if we ever come to divorce (or vice versa, we have not decided yet). I am happy to do it. Is it possible under the English law? It IS the English law that we need to comply with here. We are already married.