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House in joint names - but unequal shares - still valid once we're married?

3 replies

godzuki · 21/01/2011 13:02

When DP and I purchased our house we did so specifying that it was joint ownership but the shares were unequal (75/25). This was due to the fact we'd not been together long and wanted to be realistic about who had brought what to the partnership.

Once we're married, later this year, does this 75/25 arrangement still stand or will the house be jointly owned equally? If we divorce at some point in the future (hopefully not - but you never know!), is the house just part of our shared wealth and the courts will decide how it is split, or does the original joint ownership agreement hold any sway?

OP posts:
prh47bridge · 21/01/2011 13:11

If you divorce the house will be one of the assets to be taken into account in the financial settlement. That would apply even if it was wholly owned by one of you. However, if it turns out to be a short marriage the assets each of you brought to the marriage will be a significant factor in determining what is a fair settlement.

godzuki · 21/01/2011 20:02

Thank you

OP posts:
LittlePushka · 23/01/2011 23:30

Also, you do now each of you have a legal right to live in the matrimonial home and a right not to be excluded from it, irrespective of the shares in which you own this house. That would be relevant insofar as it it not the case that the owner of the three quarter share would have "more" right to live there pending any final settlement.

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