Hi, I wondered if anyone could confirm my understanding of potential CGT I will pay if I were to sell an investment.
(Numbers are rounded for simplicity)
I am a basic rate tax payer and after taking into account my job I am left with £11,000 remaining at the basic rate tax band.
In 2001 I put £4000 in Axa Framlington Health fund. I was obviously a lot younger and didn't understand much about investments, so it didn't go into an ISA.
It is now worth £16,000.
If I were to sell it in full then I think that the calculation is £16,000 less purchase price off £4,000 less annual CGT allowance of £3,000 which would mean that I pay CGT at 10% on £9,000, so £900 tax?
But if I were to sell a quarter of it, is the calculation £4,000 less purchase price of that element of £1,000 less CGT allowance of £3,000 which would mean that there is no CGT to pay?
So (as long as the CGT allowances don't change) I could sell the investment over 4 years and not have to pay CGT as there would be another £3,000 CGT allowance each year?
Is that correct or have I missed something? Thanks a lot