Hi, my situation is this: before marrying, my husband and I owned two flats separately. I sold mine, he still has his. The proceeds from my sale are in a savings account, as even with that as a hefty deposit we can't afford to purchase a house whilst I am on maternity leave. My husbands keen for my money to be 'working' for us and has the opportunity to purchase the freehold of his property. We're thinking of doing this using some of my savings. He has said I will jointly own the freehold whilst the mortgage will remain in his name. I'm wondering what benefit there would be for me in having half of the freehold but not being half of the home owner? His reasoning for not putting my name on the mortgage is it was his for many years before we got together and that its his 'pension' as he doesn't have any other. My feelings about that are probably better aired in AIBU or Relationships
but for the moment I'd just like some advice on the implications of jointly owning the freehold only, so that I know what I'm dealing with. Grateful for any advice available, if you've got this far! THANKYOU