Hi,
Husband and his ex had unexplained infertility 15 years ago and now we are struggling. His semen was fine back then and is now - Apparently his ex was told that they can't find anything wrong with her but they know it's something to do with her tubes? Can you be given that diagnosis if they know the problem area?
Only reason I ask is I'm starting to think it's coincidental that both of his life partners are the ones with the problem. It's possible I know, but I can't help but wonder?
Can you be told you have unexplained infertility when there is something wrong with your tubes but they don't know what? Very confusing to me!