I've named changed for this and as my name suggests, I'm having a clomid dilemma.
DS (who is nearly 2) was conceived after 3 rounds of clomid. This was prescribed by the GP after blood tests showed I wasn't ovulating and had raised prolactin levels (my GP suspected this was due to medication I was and still am taking). My cycles were never monitored during clomid use, I didn't even have blood tests. I did track my bbt which showed that I didn't ovulate the first cycle (on 50mg) but did in the second cycle (100mg) but didn't conceive, then I conceived on the 3rd cycle (also 100mg).
However, just before I got my bfp, the GP referred us to the fertility clinic and prescribed 3 more 100mg clomid cycles. Obviously didn't need them but I still have the clomid.
I've since moved areas and now we're TTC our second. My cycles are still irregular and bbt is not showing ovulation. So after all that, here's my question. My GP here seems reluctant to help as we already have a child (she's really quite unsympathetic), would you use the previously prescribed (still in date) clomid? I'm really tempted as I think it's the only way I'll ovulate but I don't know if I'm being daft? TTC tends to mess with my head!