Well, DH and I have been discussing one of us getting sterilized after this baby is born as we have no faith in anything else since my IUD failed.
I said I would prefer him to get his tubes tied as it is less invasive then if I had mine done.
He said its not more invasive.
He told me that when his mother had her youngest DS, 14 years ago, that she had them tied straight after the delivery in the delivery room. I said well then she must have had a c-section, and I'm not planning on that. He INSISTS that she had a vaginal delivery, he says he KNOWS. He tells me that the UK is backwards as you can preform tubal ligation on a woman through her vagina in the States. (Mind you he's always telling me how much better 'home' is than here).
He was 12 when his brother was born, and I'm pretty sure that he just had no idea what was going on. I've said this and been accused of calling him an idiot!!!!
My question is, can his mother have had the procedure, without an operation, straight after a vaginal birth. This was 14 years ago, any such procedure available anywhere back then.
Or has DH probably never realises or been told that a)his mum went back to the hospital for op or b)his brother was not delivered vaginally.
Please help as this has caused hours of name calling