I am so embarrassed to be posting this, but am a bit confused. I have been with my DH for 10 years. Before we met I had a fairly promiscuous sexual history but have since been entirely, 100% faithful. My husband was a virgin until we met.
This morning the fertility clinic I am working with called me to say that one of my recent blood tests show that I have Chlamydia anti-bodies in my blood and that my DH and I will both need a one-off dose of anti-biotics to clear it up.
I am not with the fertility clinic for any infertility issues of my own, I am acting as a surrogate for a childless couple. Our first attempt was a negative.
What do you think are the chances of the blood test being incorrect? Since being with my husband I have had 3 children easily, and this year gave birth to surrogate twins. Would I ever have been tested routinely for chlamydia during one of these pregnancies?
Also, after the twins I had some unpleasant discharge and a swab was taken. Would they have been tested for chlamydia then? I was told I had an infection and given anti-biotics but not the type of infection. I have also had various swabs taken during pregnancy due to PROM but maybe they never requested a chlamydia test?
I have no reason to doubt my husband's fidelity, but from what I know about chlamydia I thought it always had pretty devastating effects on a woman's reproductive organs and if so, why have I potentially had it for 10 years with no symptoms and no problems conceiving?