I was diagnosed via TV ultrasound with a tubo ovarian abscess in October. Started oral antiobiotics (a course of 6 weeks total) and had two follow-up TV ultrasounds in that period, so my three ultrasounds were all 2 weeks apart.
Both follow-up ultrasounds described resolution of the abscess, but a persistent 4 cm pyo-hydrosalpinx encircling the ovary. Both scans note normal follicular activity in both ovaries.
Finally had a laproscopy 2 days ago, so 2 months after the last ultrasound. Report states: grossly distorted and distended left tube obliterating the fossa. Ovary only identified after extensive careful dissection. Large endometrioma - fixing the ovary in the fossa.
(I had both tubes removed, and the endometrioma drained and removed).
Consultant explained to me (though I was a bit woozy!), he thinks I had endometrioma all along, which had got infected so appeared like/was an abscess on the first ultrasound. Seems fair enough.
But wouldn't an endometrioma be noticed in the two follow-up scans (which took place once the abscess had resolved)? No mention of any cyst is on the two scan reports and I distinctly remember one sonographer telling me my ovaries now look normal.
Thank you in advance for any insights - I will of course ask my consultant when I see him for follow up in a few weeks, but I've been puzzling on this, especially as I have no history of pain (until october) or troublesome periods, and I understand endometrioma are usually associated with severe endometriosis.