16yo dd has been tentatively diagnosed with this, potentially caused by an asymptomatic UTI.
I am confused. We have plenty of experience with UTIs, and this is totally different.
She has been increasingly ill for nearly a week, and saw the GP yesterday.
Temperature up to 39.5, reduced by paracetamol/ibuprofen.
Increasing pain in left side (I worried about spleen). Mild if she's not moving, but very severe whenever she coughs/burps/yawns etc.
Very poor appetite. General malaise. Sweat-soaked PJs in the morning. Wants to be held, but cannot bear to be stroked.
Well hydrated, no urgency, no discomfort urinating.
GP says no swelling or tenderness around spleen, liver, kidneys, bowel.
Considered appendicitis, but no 'guarding' when he felt her belly, no vomiting, poo normal (taking into account how little she's eating). Considered ovarian cyst and endometriosis, but pain completely different to periods, also fever not associated with these.
Considered glandular fever, but glands in general not enlarged.
Urine sample suggests possible infection (white cells, nitrites?) so sending it for culture.
What's going on? Is MA simply a catch-all? Can you actually be so ill with a UTI, without any symptoms of one?
Am also confused that the GP has prescribed 3 days of nitrofurantoin for the possible UTI, but the leaflet says the course should be 7 days.
Any advice?